Latest [Mar 29, 2024] 100% Passing Guarantee - Brilliant ISTQB-CTFL Exam Questions PDF [Q25-Q46]

QUESTION 25
Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Functional Testing

Code inspection

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

Coverage analysis

Functional testing is an example of black-box dynamic testing. Black-box testing (also known as specification-based testing) is a type of testing that does not consider the internal structure or implementation of the system under test, but rather its external behavior or functionality. Dynamic testing is a type of testing that involves executing the system under test with various inputs and observing its outputs. Functional testing is a type of black-box dynamic testing that verifies that the system under test performs its intended functions according to its requirements or specifications. Functional testing can be performed at various levels and scopes depending on the objectives and criteria of testing. The other options are not examples of black-box dynamic testing. Code inspection is an example of white-box static testing. White-box testing (also known as structure-based testing) is a type of testing that considers the internal structure or implementation of the system under test. Static testing is a type of testing that does not involve executing the system under test, but rather analyzing it for defects, errors, or violations of standards. Code inspection is a type of white-box static testing that involves examining the source code of the system under test for quality, readability, maintainability, etc. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it is an example of white-box dynamic testing. Memory leaks are defects that occur when a program fails to release memory that it has allocated but no longer needs. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it requires knowledge and access to the internal structure or implementation of the program, such as memory allocation and deallocation mechanisms, pointers, references, etc. Coverage analysis is an example of white-box static testing. Coverage analysis is a technique that measures how much of the code or structure of the system under test has been exercised by a test suite. Coverage analysis requires knowledge and access to the internal structure or implementation of the system under test, such as statements, branches, paths, conditions, etc. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer, page 7.

QUESTION 26
A test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developer has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests. Which of the following is correct?

The lest engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded.

The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated.

QUESTION 27
In which of the following cases you would NOT execute maintenance testing?

Retirement of the software or system

Modifications to a released software or system

Migration of the system data to a replacement system

Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase

QUESTION 28
Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of

It is not a defect

Defect

Error

Failure

QUESTION 29
The following part of a business process flow is specified; REPEAT (book a bill) UNTIL (User presses Cancel). How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% branch coverage of the process flow?

4

1

2

Infinite

QUESTION 30
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Test cases are made up of input values, expected results and actual results developed to cover test objectives

Test cases describe items or events to test that are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity

Test cases are sequences of actions for test execution specified during the test implementation activity D. Test cases are derived during the test design activity to cover test objectives or test conditions

QUESTION 31
ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:
1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience – allow limited access
2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience – allow full access
3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience – allow limited access.
What would be the results for:
A – ST certified. 12 years of testing experience
B – Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience
C – Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience

A – unknown
B – limned access
C- unknown

A – full access
B – limited access
C – unknown

A – full access
B – limited access
C – limited access

A – unknown
B – full access
C – unknown

QUESTION 32
A software module to be used in a mission critical application incorporates an algorithm for secure transmission of dat a.
Which review type is most appropriate to ensure high quality and technical correctness of the algorithm?

Walkthrough

Informal Review

Technical Review

Management Review

QUESTION 33
Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?

An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.

The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.

An inspection can be performed by peers.

An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria

An inspection is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. An inspection can be performed by peers with different roles, such as moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The following statement about inspection is not true:
B) The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems. This statement is not true, as the main purpose of an inspection is to find defects or issues in a work product, not to find solutions to the problems. Finding solutions to the problems is a debugging or problem-solving activity that is usually performed by the author or developer after receiving the inspection report. The following statements about inspection are true:
A) An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author. This statement is true, as an inspection requires a moderator role who leads the inspection process and ensures that it follows the rules and standards. The moderator should be trained in inspection techniques and should not be the author of the work product under inspection, in order to avoid bias or conflict of interest.
C) An inspection can be performed by peers. This statement is true, as an inspection involves peer review, which means that the work product under inspection is evaluated by people who have similar roles or expertise as the author, but who are not directly involved in creating or modifying the work product.
D) An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria. This statement is true, as an inspection follows a formal process that consists of six main steps: planning, kick-off meeting, individual preparation, review meeting, rework and follow-up. Each step has defined rules and checklists to guide the participants and ensure consistency and quality. Each step also has entry and exit criteria to ensure that the prerequisites and objectives are met before moving to the next step. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer, Chapter 3, page 28-29.

QUESTION 34
A program got 100% decision coverage in a test. Which of the following statements is then guaranteed to be true?

Every executable statement Is covered.

Every output equivalence class has been tested.

Every input equivalence class has been tested.

The “dead” code has not been covered.

If a program got 100% decision coverage in a test, then it is guaranteed that every executable statement is covered. Decision coverage (also known as branch coverage) is a type of structural coverage (also known as white-box coverage) that measures how many decision outcomes have been exercised by a test suite. A decision outcome is a possible result of a decision point (such as an if-then-else statement) in a program’s code. Decision coverage requires that each decision point has both true and false outcomes executed at least once by a test suite. Decision coverage implies statement coverage, which is another type of structural coverage that measures how many executable statements have been executed by a test suite. Statement coverage requires that each executable statement is executed at least once by a test suite. Therefore, if a program got 100% decision coverage in a test, then it also got 100% statement coverage in a test, which means that every executable statement is covered. The other options are not guaranteed to be true if a program got 100% decision coverage in a test. Every output equivalence class has been tested and every input equivalence class has been tested are not guaranteed to be true if a program got 100% decision coverage in a test, because equivalence classes are based on functional requirements or specifications, not on code structure or logic. Equivalence classes are used in specification-based testing (also known as black-box testing), which is a type of testing that does not consider the internal structure or implementation of the system under test. Decision coverage is used in structure-based testing (also known as white-box testing), which is a type of testing that considers the internal structure or implementation of the system under test. Therefore, achieving 100% decision coverage does not imply achieving 100% equivalence class coverage. The “dead” code has not been covered is not guaranteed to be true if a program got 100% decision coverage in a test, because dead code (also known as unreachable code) is code that can never be executed due to logical errors or design flaws. Dead code can reduce readability and maintainability of the code, as well as increase complexity and size. Decision coverage does not account for dead code, as it only considers the decision outcomes that are possible to execute. Therefore, achieving 100% decision coverage does not imply that the dead code has not been covered. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer, page 36.

QUESTION 35
An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states; Open, Assigned, Solved, Closed Consider the following defect report:
Id T000561
Test Object “Warehouse Management’ application
Tester name; John Bishop
Date: 10th. April 2010
Test Case MRT558I
Status OPEN
Severity Serious
Priority
Problem- After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen, the system shows an unexpected Error message=47 Correction:
Developer name:
Closing date:
Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?

The Priority, the Correction description and the Developer name are missing

The version of the application is missing

There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability)

The description is not highlighting the source of the problem

A valid criticism of this report is that the version of the application is missing. The version of the application is an important piece of information that should be included in a defect report, as it helps to identify which release or build of the software product contains the defect. The version of the application can also help to reproduce and debug the defect, as different versions may have different behaviors or features. The other options are not valid criticisms of this report. The priority, the correction description and the developer name are not missing, but rather not applicable for this report. The priority is a measure of how urgently a defect needs to be fixed, which can be assigned by the project manager or the defect tracking system, not by the tester who reports the defect. The correction description and the developer name are information that are added after the defect has been resolved, not when it has been reported. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability) is not a valid criticism of this report, because traceability is not a mandatory attribute of a defect report, but rather an optional one. Traceability is a relationship between two or more entities (such as requirements, test cases, defects, etc.) that shows how they are related or dependent on each other. Traceability can help to verify that the requirements are met by the test cases and defects, but it is not essential for reporting a defect. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem is not a valid criticism of this report, because highlighting the source of the problem is not a responsibility of the tester who reports the defect, but rather of the developer who fixes the defect. The description should provide enough information to describe what happened when the defect occurred, such as input values, expected results, actual results, error messages, screenshots, etc., but it does not need to explain why or how it happened. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer, page 140.

QUESTION 36
Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Finding defects

Providing information for decision-making

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

QUESTION 37
Which of the following is true about Oracles?

Sometimes old version of a product can be used as an Oracle

Oracles help in reproducing the irreproducible bugs

Oracles are derived from the design

Oracles can be generated automatically using data generators

QUESTION 38
4 equivalence classes are given for integer values:
0 < x <100
100<= x <= 200
200 < x < 500
x >= 500
Which of the following options represent correct set of data for valid equivalence class partitions?

50; 100; 200. 1000

0. 1.99, 100.200,201.499, 500;

0.50; 100; 150.200.350.500;

50; 100; 250; 1000

QUESTION 39
Which of the following is the most important task of a typical test leader?

To automate tests.

To prepare and acquire test data.

To set up the test environment.

To coordinate the test strategy with project managers.

QUESTION 40
The following sentences refer to the ‘Standard for Software Test Documentation’ specification (IEEE 829).
Which sentence is correct?

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects. For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items.

QUESTION 41
A software calculates the annual car tax using three inputs:
– E; the emission level of the vehicle
– P: the power of the vehicle
-T the type of the vehicle
The input value for P can be integer positive values between 15 and 350.
Which of the following answers contains a correct list of a boundary values for the P input?

14,351

14,15,350,351

15,350

5.175.500

QUESTION 42
Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?

The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved

The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects

For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards

The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing

Testing is necessary for various reasons, such as:
To detect defects and failures that may affect the quality, performance, reliability or security of a software product or system To verify that a software product or system meets its specified requirements, expectations and standards To validate that a software product or system fulfills its intended purpose and satisfies its stakeholders’ needs To provide information and feedback about the status and risks of a software product or system To comply with regulations or contractual obligations that mandate testing for certain types of software products or systems The following statements describe some reasons why testing is necessary:
A) The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a contractual obligation or a quality standard that requires testing to measure and achieve a certain level of code coverage.
C) For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a regulation or a compliance requirement that mandates testing for certain types of software products or systems that have high safety or security risks.
D) The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a risk-based approach that considers testing as an investment to reduce the probability and impact of potential failures or defects. The following statement does not describe a reason why testing is necessary:
B) The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects. This is not a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a business decision or a resource allocation that does not justify the need or purpose of testing. Test automation tools are not always suitable or beneficial for all projects, and testing can be performed with or without test automation tools. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus – Springer], Chapter 1, page 5-6.

QUESTION 43
Which of the following is a correct reason to apply test automation?

When a new test automation tool is launched

When there are a lot of repetitive testing tasks

When it is easy to automate

When it is cheap to buy test automation tools

QUESTION 44
A mid-size software product development company has analyzed data related to defects detected in its product and found out that detects fixed in earlier builds are getting re-opened after a few months.
The company management now seeks your advice in order to reverse this trend and prevent re-opening of defects fixed earlier.
What would be your FIRST recommendation to the company?

Automate existing test suits so that lesser time is spent on execution of each test, and more tests can be executed m the available time thus leading to a lower probability of defects slipping by

Verify existing regression test suite are adequate, and augment it, if required, in order to ensure that defects fixed earlier get re-tested in each subsequent build

Analyze the product modules containing maximum defects, and get them thoroughly tested and defects fixed as a one-time activity

If required, tram the teams responsible for development and testing of the modules containing maximum number of defects, and if this does not help, replace them with more knowledgeable people

QUESTION 45
Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis for a test exit criteria?

Test schedules

Cost of testing performed so far

Confidence of testers in tested code

Number of unfixed defects

QUESTION 46
Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?

Test environment details

How to reproduce the defect

How to fix the defect

Seventy and priority

Latest [Mar 29, 2024] 100% Passing Guarantee – Brilliant ISTQB-CTFL Exam Questions PDF [Q25-Q46]

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