[2026] SPLK-5001 Exam Dumps, Test Engine Practice Test Questions [Q77-Q96]

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[2026] SPLK-5001 Exam Dumps, Test Engine Practice Test Questions

Pass SPLK-5001 exam [Sep 29, 2026] Updated 144 Questions

Splunk SPLK-5001 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic Details
Topic 1
  • Data Management and Indexing: The Data Management and Indexing section explores how Splunk processes data ingestion and indexing. It details the data pipeline, covering the stages of data collection, parsing, and indexing. This section also includes configuring data inputs and indexing settings, as well as managing indexing performance and data retention policies.
Topic 2
  • Splunk Architecture and Deployment: The Splunk Architecture and Deployment section offers a detailed understanding of Splunk’s structure and deployment methods. It covers the core components of Splunk Enterprise, such as the Indexer, Search Head, and Forwarder. This section involves examining the design of Splunk deployments, including how these components interact and their specific roles.
Topic 3
  • Installation and Configuration: In the Installation and Configuration section, the focus is on the procedures for installing and setting up Splunk Enterprise. This includes the installation process across different operating systems and the configuration of necessary components to ensure proper functionality. Key topics include installing the Splunk software, setting up the Deployment Server, and configuring Data Inputs for data collection and indexing.
Topic 4
  • Troubleshooting and Maintenance: The Troubleshooting and Maintenance section focuses on diagnosing and resolving issues within a Splunk deployment. This involves using diagnostic tools and logs to troubleshoot common problems such as data ingestion issues, search performance, and system errors.
Topic 5
  • Monitoring and Performance Tuning: The Monitoring and Performance Tuning section addresses strategies for overseeing and optimizing the performance of a Splunk deployment.

 

Q77. How are SOAR playbooks used in threat hunting?

 
 
 
 

Q78. Which of the following use cases is best suited to be a Splunk SOAR Playbook?

 
 
 
 

Q79. Which of the following compliance frameworks was specifically created to measure the level of cybersecurity maturity within an organization?

 
 
 
 

Q80. Which of the following is a reason to use Data Model Acceleration in Splunk?

 
 
 
 

Q81. Which of the Enterprise Security frameworks provides additional automatic context and correlation to fields that exist within raw data?

 
 
 
 

Q82. How are Notable Events configured in Splunk Enterprise Security?

 
 
 
 

Q83. An adversary uses “LoudMiner” to hijack resources for crypto mining. What does this represent in a TTP framework?

 
 
 
 

Q84. An analyst is investigating how an attacker successfully performs a brute-force attack to gain a foothold into an organizations systems. In the course of the investigation the analyst determines that the reason no alerts were generated is because the detection searches were configured to run against Windows data only and excluding any Linux data.
This is an example of what?

 
 
 
 

Q85. What goal of an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) group aims to disrupt or damage on behalf of a cause?

 
 
 
 

Q86. An analyst discovers malicious software present within the network. When tracing the origin of the software, the analyst discovers it is actually a part of a third-party vendor application that is used regularly by the organization. This is an example of what kind of threat?

 
 
 
 

Q87. While investigating findings in Enterprise Security, an analyst has identified a compromised device. Without leaving ES, what action could they take to run a sequence of containment activities on the compromised device that also updates the original finding?

 
 
 
 

Q88. After discovering some events that were missed in an initial investigation, an analyst determines this is because some events have an empty src field. Instead, the required data is often captured in another field called machine_name.
What SPL could they use to find all relevant events across either field until the field extraction is fixed?

 
 
 
 

Q89. In SPL, streaming commands operate on each individual event. There are two types of streaming commands: distributableand centralized. Which of the following statements is true about search efficiency using streaming commands?

 
 
 
 

Q90. Upon investigating a report of a web server becoming unavailable, the security analyst finds that the web server’s access log has the same log entry millions of times:
147.186.119.200 – – [28/Jul/2023:12:04:13 -0300] “GET /login/ HTTP/1.0”
200 3733
What kind of attack is occurring?

 
 
 
 

Q91. What is the main difference between a DDoS and a DoS attack?

 
 
 
 

Q92. Which Splunk resource provides pre-built content for assessing data sources and threat intelligence capabilities?

 
 
 
 

Q93. This technique is used by attackers to hide the presence of components like programs, files, and network connections by hooking into the OS and intercepting system API calls. It can reside at the user or kernel level. What technique is this?

 
 
 
 

Q94. A threat hunter executed a hunt based on the following hypothesis:
As an actor, I want to plant rundll32 for proxy execution of malicious code and leverage Cobalt Strike for Command and Control.
Relevant logs and artifacts such as Sysmon, netflow, IDS alerts, and EDR logs were searched, and the hunter is confident in the conclusion that Cobalt Strike is not present in the company’s environment.
Which of the following best describes the outcome of this threat hunt?

 
 
 
 

Q95. An analyst needs to create a new field at search time. Which Splunk command will dynamically extract additional fields as part of a Search pipeline?

 
 
 
 

Q96. What is the first phase of the Continuous Monitoring cycle?

 
 
 
 

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